One year later he meets a woman who he later marries , but sadly in just a few years they get legally seperated ( no kids ), While they were still married the wife came to know of his earnings that he gave to his parents before they even met . During the years they were married whenever he needed cash he just asked his parents for money which in reality but not legally (?) was his anyways . Can there be any legal basis for the wife ( now soon to be ex wife ) to claim a share of that 5 million as part of conjugal property since it can be proven that his soon to be exhusband is the one who earned that money ( via Income tax returns ) and since no prenup was signed , it should be considered conjugal property even though he earned it and gave it to his parents prior to them even meeting and getting married , since maybe a case of improper donation can be made as the amount being substantial , the son did not pay any donor /donee tax at the time he gave away his 5 M in cash to his parents. IF this would be considered improper donation,, would the penatly be just monetary fine or could such also put to question who between the parents and son is the lawful owner of the money and thus be a factor if the money should be considered conjugal property or not
In another scenario , if a man while he was still married was given an inherritance( Cash and or properties ) by his parents and years later he and his wife gets legally seperated, is the inherittance he got from his parents considered part of conjugal property ? Is there a legal way for the man and or his parents , at the time the inheritance is given to the son/man make such inheritance for the son/man only and not part of conjugal property ?