What if an employee suddenly informs the day before he should resume work (from christmas holiday)that he cannot attend work until after 15 more days as the ship/flight booked coming back from the province can no longer be moved to avoid the rebooking fees? even though that was not the original information verbally given to HR prior to new year vacation? (we still have no proof whether his booking dates were really such as employee still has not reported back for work).
what sanctions are possible? since we received the details over text message only and we replied to acknowledge receipt (but we do not approve of it). Would this constitute AWOL? how about termination? is it strong enough to be used as case for termination? so far our CRR does not indicate a maximum number of leave nor what constitutes awol, it only stipulates that the employee needs to inform at least a day before the absence, but in this case, this is already abusive given that employee knows very well when office will resume. Our CRR only states that major grounds for termination include: insubordination, theft, etc. so can this also count as insubordination?
Moving forward, Is it ok to explicitly state in the CRR a maximum number of leaves regardless of reason (say, 12 or 15days cumulative for a year) including the government mandated 5 day leave? except maternity leave and hospitalization cases of course.
Wish you can share your thoughts on this