We have a case here..
The owner consent his son to sell his share. The daughters said that their mom will not sign the contract. As for them it was a conjugal property. Their father inherited the land and the title goes like "married to"..
We dont know how to proceed. Deed of sale has been processed already.
> If we give initial payment even if the title is not yet ready will it be void if their mother will not sign?
> Do we really need their mother's signature?