Need some legal light on a case being faced by our family recently.
Having now the resources, we had our house improved lately - from purely native materials, to part concrete; had own water pump built as well.
We have lived in that piece of land for 20 years or so, not counting the years when my grandparents, and even our great grandparents, have lived on that land before us. Not sure yet of exact # of years.
When we moved to the house when I was still very little, what I know is that it was my grandparents', only to learn later on that we don't own the land.
Today, the son of the owner of the land came and was inquiring why we had made improvements on our house to part concrete without informing him. And that he will go back and he'll meet my parents in the barangay to talk there.
Given my abovementioned contentions, isn't it that we have now the right to ownership of the land where our house was built, exactly same spot where my grandparents' and great grandparents' houses stood, through adverse possession? We acquired it openly, continuously, adversely, notoriously and exclusively. That piece of land is a small parcel compared to the actual lot that they own.
I don't remember our family paying taxes for the land by the way (since we don't own it of course) though that shouldn't matter, or should it?
Appreciate your response. More power!