The first Warrant of Arrest was issued on February 3, 2014.
On March 4, 2014, the Accused "has voluntarily surrendered before the Court" which issued the stated Warrant. She personally paid the bail and submitted his/her Affidavit of Undertaking.
Please allow me to ask the following questions:
1. Is it proper police procedure that the accused is allowed to personally process his/her bail? Was he/she was supposed to be in jail because of the warrant?
2. Is it also proper that the presiding judge issued the second Warrant of Arrest with exactly the same amount of bail?
3. Is it not appropriate and/or more "honorable" for the presiding judge to subject the accused to "contempt of court" for failing to appear during the arraignment despite of his/her submitted Affidavit of Undertaking issued when he/she personally paid the bail for the first warrant?
Thank very much for your help.