Urgently requesting for an advice, i was absent on a critical workday, half-day on january 19 and 20.. i have notified my manager which gave me the impression, given my reason, that she has excused me and i wont be in trouble. We had a coaching on the 20th and in no form and way i was told i will be issued a notice. I took her response as i'm excused.
March 18, out of nowhere i was served a notice to explain re the offense. It took them two months and no proper expectations was set that it will be escalated since after i had notified my manager. And be served after two months is for me is questionable of their labor practice.
My managers reason for the delay because the company attorney caused the delay, it is because which is i was recently told, that sanctions that will be for suspension should be signed by the company attorney, and that she has submitted the notice for the atty to sign days the following day.
My question is if it is legal at all that i be asked to explain 2 months after? Plus my manager included on the notice jan 20 which accdg to the office communication isnt included on what they sent to be critical workday, my argument was this manager has a habit of not setting expectations, and being mali - mali..
The inclusions on the notice alone isnt factual, the timeliness is in question being 2 months issuance from the time of violation and was not let know of prior that of a posibility of a sanction after i requested permission.
Ill be for suspension next, im partly planning not signing or replying because im greatly questioning the timeliness and as well as when my stated reason for being out was not deemed valid by my manager, how do i expect that i will be indeed heard. It ddnt pass my manager and worse im blindsided as it took them 2 mos and i was not told of any pending in january and expectations were not properly set.
Last edited by alphamel on Fri Apr 03, 2015 9:08 pm; edited 1 time in total (Reason for editing : correction and addition)