The church lot was donated by a person a long time ago. our old church building stood at the right half of it while the church workers' were housed at the left. after so many years, we erected a new building at the left and the church workers were relocated at the back of the lot, the New church Building has been standing for 15 years, while the old church was idle (not used). Then just 2 years ago, a company owner asked if he could lease the part of the lot where the old Church is standing, and because the church was not having enough funds to provide for church programs & outreaches while it pays for the church workers salaries, the church members decided to agree to demolish the old building & have it leased to the said company owner so that he could erect a department store. the department store is already erected & the company owner has already paid for the 6 months advance.
But now, the children of the donor (now deceased), are claiming the lot that the donor donated a long time ago. They claim that the lot was donated for the church to use solely for the church building & not for lease.
Do we have a chance to win the case? or do we have none? i've never heard of a donation where there is a condition for its use