Would just like to ask if a cohabitation agreement would be effective in a case like this:
A man contracted 2 marriages, in his 2nd marriage he and his 2nd wife were able to buy 3 small apartments. The 2nd wife found out that her husband is bigamous and they both agreed to sign a "Cohabitation Agreement" stating that in case they separate all 3 apartments will go to wife#2. They both sign the contract in front of the necessary lawyers.
Wife #1 arrives and files a bigamy case. she wins, and the court orders the husband's properties be given to the 1st family. The 3 apartments which the second marriage bought would now fall under the rules of cohabitation. Does this mean that since husband and wife#2 signed a cohabitation agreement that husband is left without any share of property and wife #1 has nothing to get in the end?
thanks for any advice or opinion.