I would just like to ask, lets say wife #2 and husband bought 3 small apartments. Then wife #1 discovers she has something to gain and files a bigamy case against husband whom she had not seen for several decades for the sake of the property. Would the court order the freeze of the 3 apartments under the name of wife #2 and husband from being sold or do you need a court decision proving bigamy and voided marriage first before you can freeze the second marriage's properties?
As I recall, you can only freeze properties if they are the main subject in the case, like government corruption or ill-gotten wealth. But In bigamy isn't the main subject marriages? so would any property owned by the second family immediately be frozen upon complaint or only upon decision at the end of the whole bigamy case?