I have a few queries: A parcel of land is owned by Mr. & Mrs. AAA, both are now deceased (Husband died a year ago, wife died 20+ years ago), the title is still in their name, left no will. They have 7 children, no other heirs.
1. Does the ownership of the land automatically pass to the children?
2. Can the children sell the land?
3. Assuming they could sell the land: Four out of the seven children signed an SPA authorizing the eldest (one of the four)to transact in their behalf. Two are abroad and cannot sign the SPA. One was asked not to sign (my dad). What is the implication of the non-signing as regards my dad?
I hope you could shed light on our problem atty. thanks!