Our family is planning to buy a right-of-way, since our land is too far from the main road. A neighbor has agreed to provide a part of their property for the said development. The problem is, however, the land title belongs to the neighbor's deceased father, and it hasn't been partitioned and transferred to the children yet. So, question is, how can we proceed with this agreement? Would it be legally acceptable if we make a contract stating that all of the heirs [say all 6 siblings] agreed with the acquisition, and have them sign it?
Thank you very much!